The J. D. Vance Thread

I bolded a part of that paragraph because I think it will give us a pretty good way to see if there is indeed church doctrine about blood purity. I agree that there were secular laws like the Limpieza de Sangre laws enacted by the kingdom. I also agree that that church and secular authorities worked in concert. In fact, given that we do indeed have a lot of cases of kings and ruler enforcing canon law I think it would be simple to find some sort of church teaching that then influenced secular law and where people were held accountable for violating these laws.

Your misunderstanding here stems from a continued failure to grasp the historical relationship between Church and state during this period. As I’ve pointed out there was no separation of Church and state in the way we understand it today. The Church and secular rulers were not distinct entities, Church doctrine had a profound influence on secular law especially in matters of purity of blood during these times.

It’s not as simple as you think to distinguish between "secular" and "Church" when they were so often aligned in enforcing such laws. Limpieza de Sangre was enforced through Church institutions, as ecclesiastical bodies played a key role in validating, enforcing, and supporting these racial policies. If you believe there’s a distinction between the secular and the ecclesiastical in these matters then you are overlooking the theocratic nature of these times. The Church didn't only influence secular law it determined it especially where racial and religious purity were concerned.

So, no, it’s not as easy as saying "secular authorities did this on their own." You’ve missed the key point: the Church was deeply involved in shaping the racial and religious landscape of Iberia and its colonies through its doctrine and enforcement which includes Limpieza de Sangre.

A case example would be with usury. Church canon law forbid usury and people would actually be tried in court for violating these laws. The church set down a law and when people were thought to have violated the law they were summoned to a court to answer these charges. This would be an example of what we are looking for when "canon law influenced secular legislation". We go from church makes a law -> these laws are enforced and up held in the secular realm.

While it’s true that canon law forbade usury the problem is your reductionism. Yes canon law did forbid usury and was enforced by secular authorities but the nature of the enforcement is important. The enforcement of usury laws by secular authorities was a consequence of the Church’s doctrinal stance meaning it was still an extension of Church teaching not a separate, independent legal framework. Your analogy here is shallow because it oversimplifies the actual relationship between Church and state during this period. They were not the separated institutions we know today.

That's what I am accused of here, not "oversimplifying" things. This is why people miss details that change the outcome of the analysis.


The law being implemented in England in response to church teaching:

Enforcement of the law:

This is an example of how we go from church teaching to influencing the law of the land.

This misses a crucial point that Church law was inseparable from secular law at the time. There was no separation between the Church and state. The ecclesiastical authorities had full dominion over secular authorities in many matters, especially in Spain during the time of the Limpieza de Sangre. This reality invalidates your attempt to claim that canon law in secular matters can be compartmentalized from direct Church involvement. In other words the laws in question were not just enforced but authored and sanctioned by ecclesiastical institutions.

Can you provide your own example of this sort of progression from church teaching to influencing the law of the land? The Limpieza de Sangre laws you used as an example does NOT have this sort of progression.

This is where you completely misunderstands the nature of Church power and its relationship with secular authorities. The Limpieza de Sangre laws were unequivocally influenced by the Church and were deeply embedded in the religious and racial doctrines in the post-Reconquista centuries. Religious orders like the Jeronimos, and even Catholic monarchs were instrumental in applying these laws. Their role was not just as advisors to secular authorities but as active enforcers of a racially motivated ecclesiastical doctrine.

To make this clear Limpieza de Sangre was directly connected to religious purity, which was doctrinally mandated by the Church, and its enforcement was mandated by the Church through its monastic orders and secular rulers who were the Church’s agents. This was a Church-sanctioned policy unlike the secular usury laws which were a more indirect enforcement of canon law in a social or financial domain.

The examples you gave of Jerónimos and religious orders applying these laws are not examples of canon law or binding church teaching that applies to all the faithful in the same say a teaching on the prohibition of usury or homosexual behavior or divorce.

The Limpieza de Sangre laws were in fact directly connected to Church teaching not just in a vague way but as ecclesiastically sanctioned dogma. The Jeronimos and other religious orders were agents of the Church and the implementation of these laws was necessary to preserve the purity of the Christian faith, as blood purity was tied directly to spiritual purity.

This is not some outlier or local custom but a widespread Church-endorsed law. To dismiss it as mere secular law is to misunderstand the interdependence of Church and state at the time. Doctrines on racial purity and spiritual purity have always been intrinsically linked in Christian orthodoxy. The Church did not separate the two. Claims like the Limpieza de Sangre laws being non-canonical are rooted in a modern misunderstanding of Church authority and fail to account for the fact that racial purity laws were a tool of the Church's larger goal of doctrinal purity.

Keep in mind that the argument you have been trying to make is the prohibition of inter-ethnic marriage is on the same level as the prohibition of homosexuality or cousin marriage The sort of prohibitions in Spain that you have been bringing forth are not that. Those blood purity laws were specific to the Spanish kingdom (as they were enacted by the Spanish crown) and because of their history of being conquered by the Muslims and for the amount of Jews that were present in the kingdom.

You seem intent on compartmentalizing the issue but the reality is that the Church’s role in racial purity during these centuries was not an isolated matter for the Spanish crown.

I am not disagreeing with you on the locality. You do acknowledge that the Limpieza de Sangre laws were a specific response to the unique historical situation Spain found itself in with its long history of Muslim conquest and the significant presence of jews. Spain was a kingdom on the periphery of Christian Europe. The Church’s enforcement of purity laws wasn’t arbitrary but a reaction to the extreme demographic changes and foreign influence within its borders. Homosexuality is a universal sin in all humans, so is cousin marriage. Racial mixing is not the same as these as it requires two alien peoples to occupy the same space, which was not common back then.

The rest of Europe, Germany, England, Ireland, France, and Scandinavia were not subject to the same pressures that Spain was. These kingdoms were ethnically homogenous with their populations 100% European unlike Spain, which had been dealing with centuries of foreign invasions and the integration of non-European elements. Thus there was no existential threat to the racial purity of these nations and consequently there was no need for explicit laws like Limpieza de Sangre in nations like Germany, France, England, and Norway, where there was a clear and continuously undiluted European identity.

The threat of racial and religious contamination was unique to Spain and the Church’s enforcement of these laws was reactive. We could all do with laws like these now but instead our political and religious leaders tolerate Islam, Hindus, Buddhists, and every other junk religion in our homes on top of jewish mafias running everything.

Your argument is that the prohibition against interfaith marriage was in reality a prohibition between a prohibition between ethnic groups since ethnic and religious identity were one and the same in the middle ages. However, you had previously wrote "From the time the Church became an institution of law in the 300s onward it was well understood that maintaining a pure European bloodline was just as important as keeping the faith pure." This was a time when there was still pagans all around Europe. As I pointed out, the church would have been against a Germanic or Roman pagan marrying a Christian woman no matter what their blood was. In the 300s religious identity not been the same as a ethnic identity.

There was an outgrowth from the Greco-Roman simplicities of the early faith before the Church became the dominant political power in Europe and the Mediterranean. The Church also grew from its infancy of sermons in the wild and catacombs to an economic and political powerhouse on top of a theocratic system of kingdoms.

In the apostolic era was defined by the apostles and early Christians being sent out on a very specific mission. Christ’s directive was to spread the Gospel to the nations, and in that context, the nations referred to the tribes and peoples of Europe particularly those rooted in Greco-Roman, Germanic, Gallic, Celtic, Slavic, and Nordic traditions. The apostolic mission was fundamentally about bringing these tribal identities into the fold of Christianity, not to impose the faith onto every corner of the world, but to unite these European peoples through faith while preserving the racial and cultural integrity of those tribes.

Christianity never sought to conquer or convert the whole world in the way modern dispensationalist missionary efforts might imagine. It was targeted by design to spread Christianity aimed specifically at the European tribes, those who shared the Aryan connection of a common heritage that was temporarily rooted in pagan beliefs which were seen as incorrect in the eyes of the Church. These were the tribes of the West, which is why the Gospel was not spread to Hindu, Buddhist, Zoroastrian, or other Asiatic and African peoples. There was no effort to cross those cultural and racial barriers until the last several hundred years, which have all ended in massive disaster or are ongoing in massive disaster.

Your main argument has been "Well I can't quote any sort of church canon law on inter-ethnic marriage in the same way I can easily quote a teaching on inter-faith marriage but hold on, since ethnicity and faith are the same this must mean that prohibiting inter-faith marriage is really about prohibiting inter-ethnic marriage" Are you suggesting that church law would been approving of a pagan Goth marrying a Christian woman since if he's Aryan it must mean he's really Christian even if he prays to Odin?

First your underlying confusion is rooted in the false equivalence between ethnic identity and religion. I never suggested that any pagan Goth could marry a Christian woman just because he was Aryan by blood. The issue at hand is not that ethnic purity supersedes faith or that bloodline can be separated from faith. Rather it’s that the early Church in its foundational wisdom understood faith as the key unifier of the tribal bloodlines of Europe. This is where you fail to see the theological integrity of the Church’s laws and the spiritual necessity of those laws in preserving the European heritage.

You seem to misunderstand that the Church did not view faith and bloodline as separate. They were intertwined. The early Church wasn’t about making just any pagan a Christian it was about converting those who had the potential to accept the faith. Those were the European peoples. The Goths, Franks, Vikings, and so on were tribal Europeans, and thus, when they converted to Christianity, they did so with the recognition that their ethnic identity was not to be discarded but rather elevated through the shared faith in Christ. The Church wasn’t just preaching to a soul it was preaching to an ethnic group, a tribe whose cultural and bloodline integrity was paramount.

Faith and ethnic heritage are deeply interconnected, not as competing forces but as complementary parts of a single identity. Once the ethnic tribes of Europe embraced the Christian faith they did so knowing they were not only embracing spiritual truth but also affirming their own racial and cultural destiny. The early Church’s laws on marriage and conversion reflect this holistic view of faith as an integral part of maintaining the purity of both the soul and the bloodline, or one's generations.

You are contradicting your own argument that it was the church that kept racial groups pure. If people already had a such a strong instinct to not intermarry, then why is the church needed to maintain these standards? You even already say yourself by saying the church didn't need to be involved when cultural norms by itself assured that most people married within their own groups. I'm surprised you would even bring this up cause it completely undermines the base of your arguments - that the church was responsible for preserving the purity of white blood through it's teachings.

You claim a contradiction between two points that don’t conflict in the least. First you misunderstand the role of the Church in preserving the purity of European bloodlines. Yes you're right to acknowledge that cultural norms themselves strongly discouraged intermarriage, but why? Because the tribes of Europe at their core recognized the sanctity of their bloodline and their identity. The Church did not introduce this instinct, but it affirmed it and protected it through doctrine and law. The Church didn’t create a racial instinct, it codified and enshrined it within the framework of divine law ensuring that it would remain untainted by outside forces.

You say “If people already had such a strong instinct not to intermarry, why was the Church needed?” This is where your philosophy betrays you. You seem to assume that the Church’s role was merely redundant, that the people’s natural instincts could keep them pure without any external enforcement. But you fail to recognize the reality of human history, the purity of the bloodline, the very foundation of Europe’s civilization, is constantly under threat from foreign invasion, migration, and cultural and racial dissolution. It wasn't a bunch of Lotus Eaters and Tree Worshipers who fended off the Moors, the Saracens, the Mongols, and the Ottomans.

The Church was the guardian of European racial purity. It was not a passive observer. It imposed laws and provided the spiritual authority necessary to reinforce what people already felt. Without this institution there would be nothing to bind those natural instincts into a systematic force strong enough to resist the continual waves of cultural and racial dilution that were inevitably being thrust upon Europe from external forces of chaos.

If keeping to your own ethnic group marriage is the default, then what is the need for the church to teach the flock to keep their blood pure? I could have just kept my post to this one point and it alone would contradict your assertion that it was the church that ensured purity.

You fail to distinguish between natural instinct and the need for institutional protection. Yes people naturally tend to marry within their own ethnic group but history shows that instincts alone are never enough to preserve racial purity because external forces like invasions, forced migrations, and ethnic or racial dilution constantly threatened these. This is precisely why the Church codified racial purity into law as was the case for the centuries of Limpieza de Sangre. It wasn't just about preserving what was "natural" it was about ensuring the survival of European identity in a world that was constantly pushing against it.

This article also includes Gypsies and Albanians within the Aryan groups. I had no idea Aryans are woke and inclusive enough now to include these groups within their ranks. I don't suppose you are going to start extoling the genetic superiority of Albanians and Gypsies now?

It's not an article, it is an encyclopedic entry from 1913 published by the Church.

You're either suffering from selective racial amnesia or you either haven't researched racial origins deep enough. This racial hierarchy isn’t “new” or “woke.” Aryan categories were widely used in the 18th, 19th, and early 20th centuries. Even with modern knowledge the essential European ethnic identity remains intact despite variations. The Church did not draw bloodlines the way you’re attempting to do. They were more concerned with preserving Christian Europe, which is why they included these peoples. And just because certain ethnic groups are acknowledged as European or Aryan doesn’t mean it somehow weakens the purity of other Nordic and Slavic groups.

Albanians and Roma are European peoples, historically and racially. Your claim that they were mixed and thus not Aryan is anachronistic and ignorant of the fact that these groups are Indo-European. The Albanians, in particular, are an ancient European people with roots going back to the Illyrians, a proto-European group predating even the Roman Empire. Their ethnic lineage is undisturbed European. Likewise the Roma are a people with European origins even though their history involves movement across Europe from the Indian subcontinent over 1,000 years ago (so genetically, since they are not Dravidian aborigines, they are Aryan in origin). The idea of their being somehow “not Aryan” is a modern fallacy based on contemporary racial ideas, not the historical reality of ethnic Europe.

Of course in the 21st century, if you go to Tirana you will see a host of people, undiluted and mixed, which just shows the perniciousness that Islam brought there, many Albanians under Turkic occupation were bred out of their purity.

You quote facts and historical evidence plenty but you seem to be unable to draw the proper conclusions from them and you don't seem able to be able to grasp that your sources and facts don't actually prove the points you are trying to make. This is me responding to the substance of your arguments. As for finding the implications of an argument being uncomfortable:

Here's a good example of this. Seems like you personally would find it pretty uncomfortable if your own personal interpretation of Catholicism - which is at odds at what the Catholic church teaches - was wrong. What you write here sounds a variation of "you just don't understand what it's like to be a black man" that blacks give in lieu of an actual argument.

The way you frame the issue here reveals a fundamental misunderstanding of both the historical context and the principles I’ve laid out. To suggest that I fail to draw proper conclusions from my sources is a weak attempt to deflect from the glaring flaws in your own reasoning. The facts I present are irrefutable, grounded in historical and theological truth, and it is your failure to properly address these facts that makes you uncomfortable, not the other way around.

I feel zero discomfort. I am not some modernist Catholic whose beliefs are shaped by the hollowed-out Vatican II agenda. I reject that globalist, secularized version of the Church entirely. I hold fast to the original teachings of the Church preserved through centuries of doctrine and consistent theological development long before the corruption of the 20th century. My faith is rooted in the timeless unyielding truths that the Church once upheld not in the watered-down multiculturalist "theology" of today. The fact that the modern Church has strayed into Frankfurt school multicultural jewish ideologies is a perversion of its original teachings. Your assertion that I might be uncomfortable with my own interpretation is a projection, it’s the modernist, globalist version of the Church that has failed not my interpretation.

Your comparison to the 'don't know what it like to be black' argument is completely misplaced and reveals your failure to comprehend the gravity of the struggle we (meaning myself and every other European) face. It's not about emotional discomfort or a feeling of exclusion, it’s about a very real, omnipresent, existential threat. When you equate our perspective to the typical grievance discourse of those with no skin in the game you’re ignoring the facts that European racial, cultural, and theological heritage is under active and systematic attack by forces that want to erase it completely. The blacks have zero claim to that. You don't understand this because you have the luxury of not having to live under constant siege.

It's not the length that is the issue it's that you often use quantity to substitute for quality. An example of this would be here where you used 4ch green text and screen shots from a guy mostly known for the "The Jew fears the Samurai meme" as a way to bolster the credibility of your post by including as many sources as possible without using the necessary discernment:


The origin of the "jews fear the Samurai" is not from the chans. The Meiji Japanese have always held their blood purity above their mingled Asian neighbors for centuries. The discernment for Asians vs Asians is not my realm, but I know when it comes to genetic and racial matters they have their own distinctions between themselves that my ontology could not experience first-hand.

If the Japanese believe they are more racially pure than the Chinese, then what of it? That's something to settle between Chow Mein and Sashimi.

I noticed in the thread dealing with this (https://christisking.cc/threads/10-lost-tribes-we-wuz-kangs-bruh.825/) no one answered the question of if this means there was no people there in Europe prior to the destruction of the Israel Northern Kingdom or how it's strange no one in the church seemed to made the connection between Europeans and the lost tribes until some Protestants started speculating on this issue in the 19th century. Are the men exploring these claims doing so under the auspice of church authority and teaching or are they trying to introduce theologically novelty - say perhaps a reformation in the way the church thinks?

You're conflating Christian Identitarianism with the zionist "British Israelite" project. The two are not only separate but fundamentally different. Christian Identitarianism is deeply rooted in the faith and bloodline of Christendom, tracing its origins back to the early Church, the Old Testament Kingdom period and beyond, which understood the importance of maintaining a pure bloodline for both spiritual and societal health. It's not a "theological novelty" or some fringe movement born out of 19th-century speculation. The Scots' Declaration of Arbroath in 1320 demonstrates an ancient understanding of the connection between the chosen people and Europe, declaring their descent from the Holy Land long before such ideas became fashionable in Protestant circles.

These perspectives are gaining traction now but it's not because they're novel or zionist. They are rediscovering the ancient, forgotten truths that were once self-evident within Christendom. This isn't some modern ideological shift but a return to original thought that ties the Church's teachings on all forms of purity to its mission of preserving the European peoples.

The fact that this connection wasn't widely embraced or fully recognized by the broader Church isn't evidence of its invalidity, it's simply a reflection of the suppression of certain truths that don’t fit the modern globalist agenda.

So no this is not a novelty it's a rediscovery of our heritage, one that has always been there, quite overlooked and systematically suppressed by the forces you defend.

"You don't know what it's like to be a black man" argument again.

You’re confusing societal marginalization based on skin color with the existential struggle of a people defending their identity and heritage from being erased entirely. The context of the European identity crisis is not one of "personal discomfort," but of a genocidal threat against an entire race and civilization. You aren't European and there is no target on your back. There is not a massive globohomo juggernaut that thrives solely for this entire purpose on the eradication of your blood, but it does for mine and my kin.

If you can only understand a group by being a member of this group, then how have you come to such a deep understanding of Jewish psychology and their nature? By your argument you must be some sort of crypto-Jew.

By that logic, no historian, scholar, or anthropologist could possibly have an accurate understanding of any people or culture they study unless they themselves belong to it. I’m sure you’re aware that such an idea is absurd. My deep understanding of jewish psychology and nature is derived from historical study, observation, and critical analysis. True scholarship does not require one to be of a particular ethnic or religious background to understand its intricacies with the glaring exception of the present dilemma.

Cowardly attempts to deflect and malign are common moves used by those who are intellectually bankrupt and desperate to silence inconvenient truths.

The survival of Aryan Europeans which you dismiss so casually cannot be fully understood by those who have no stake in it. The intentional demographic decline of Aryan European peoples across the world is a deliberate and orchestrated agenda from top to bottom (Kalergi Plan 1930s, Gastarbeiter 1950s, Morgenthau Plan 1944, Potsdam 1945, UNHCR 1950, Hart-Cellar 1965, Australian Racial Discrimination Act of 1975, CEAS 1999, Replacement Migration Report 2000, UN Agenda 2030). There is a concerted effort to erase the very bloodlines and cultures that built the modern world.

The reality is far grimmer than what those outside this demographic like yourself may see as just another issue in a globalized world. The systematic and intentional reduction of Aryan Europeans to a minority status in their own ancestral homelands with the dismantling of our culture, and the forced dilution of our bloodlines cannot be fully comprehended unless one stands to lose it all. The conscious push towards this extinction is an agenda not seen by those who do not belong to this group nor by those who do not have the personal and collective experience of living under the weight of this existential threat.

The fact that you call it a black man argument shows your callousness. You don't give a damn, that much is clear. The root of all our debates comes down to you hounding me with random accusations that ultimately ends with attempted discrediting via ad hominem. I have to deal with a detached non-White like you insinuating that I am somehow a crypto-jew when I advocate for the survival of my own kind. Of course only the other non-Whites resonate with this. This proves that no matter how cordial we Whites are to out-groups, they (you included) are maligned to our survival, even our expression for our survival, from the start.

Let's answer a couple of questions to see where the jew is here.

Do I believe races should mix? No.
Do jews believe races should mix? Yes, every race except their "own."
Do jews push race-mixing through all kinds of nefarious subterfuges? Yes.
Do non-Whites have some kind of vested interest in more Whites mixing themselves into oblivion? Yes.
Do jews constantly try to shut down discourse when too much truth is getting out? Yes.
Do jews consistently smear their opponents with rhetorical insults in attempts to discredit them in front of an audience? Yes.
Do I ever attempt to shut down discourse? No. I always promote more discourse and exploration of a subject.
 
Your misunderstanding here stems from a continued failure to grasp the historical relationship between Church and state during this period. As I’ve pointed out there was no separation of Church and state in the way we understand it today. The Church and secular rulers were not distinct entities, Church doctrine had a profound influence on secular law especially in matters of purity of blood during these times.

It’s not as simple as you think to distinguish between "secular" and "Church" when they were so often aligned in enforcing such laws. Limpieza de Sangre was enforced through Church institutions, as ecclesiastical bodies played a key role in validating, enforcing, and supporting these racial policies. If you believe there’s a distinction between the secular and the ecclesiastical in these matters then you are overlooking the theocratic nature of these times. The Church didn't only influence secular law it determined it especially where racial and religious purity were concerned.

So, no, it’s not as easy as saying "secular authorities did this on their own." You’ve missed the key point: the Church was deeply involved in shaping the racial and religious landscape of Iberia and its colonies through its doctrine and enforcement which includes Limpieza de Sangre.

I agree that there was no separation of church and state in the way we see it today. What I don't agree with is the argument you are deriving from it: that because of the tight bond between the two it must mean every thing that the state did was somehow a reflection of some sort of church teaching. Your argument is "well the state had this law on racial blood and since church was aligned with state it therefore means that this is an example of it being based on church doctrine". This is a very weak argument. There was a law passed in 1266 in England called the Assize of Bread and Ale which regulated the sale and production of food. If someone argued that this was a result of church doctrine shaping the way foodstuff was dealt with and that we can thank church doctrine for shaping the way beer and bread was kept pure in England you would rightfully call this absurd.

To prove that a law or prohibition was influenced and a result of church teaching you have to actually show where the manner in which this prohibition was influenced by some sort of law, council, edict, or pronouncement from the church. I used the example of usury since that is a case where you had many saints and church fathers commenting on it being a sin, you had explicit church statements on the sinfulness of it, and then secular authorities created and enforced laws as a direct result of these teachings. You even agree with me here when you say this:

While it’s true that canon law forbade usury the problem is your reductionism. Yes canon law did forbid usury and was enforced by secular authorities but the nature of the enforcement is important. The enforcement of usury laws by secular authorities was a consequence of the Church’s doctrinal stance meaning it was still an extension of Church teaching not a separate, independent legal framework. Your analogy here is shallow because it oversimplifies the actual relationship between Church and state during this period. They were not the separated institutions we know today.
Yes I am in full agreement that usury laws by secular laws was a DIRECT consequence of church teaching and that is the extension of church teaching into the secular realm. That is indeed why I brought it up in the first place. I was using it as prime example of where we can find the church being concerned with an issue, issuing some teachings on it and the state setting up a legal framework in response to church teaching. I use this as an example because it would be a good standard that we can apply to see whether so and so law or prohibition is indeed a result of church doctrine.

If you agree that the usury laws stands as an example of how church teaching translates into secular law, then please provide the equivalent example for the prohibitions on racial mixing. What was the doctrine issued for by the church that then influenced the secular authorities? I suppose you would use the Limpieza de Sangre laws to be an example of this. As you write here:

This misses a crucial point that Church law was inseparable from secular law at the time. There was no separation between the Church and state. The ecclesiastical authorities had full dominion over secular authorities in many matters, especially in Spain during the time of the Limpieza de Sangre. This reality invalidates your attempt to claim that canon law in secular matters can be compartmentalized from direct Church involvement. In other words the laws in question were not just enforced but authored and sanctioned by ecclesiastical institutions.

Where are the laws that were authored by the church? All I see is that there was laws authored by the kingdom. If you are going to say that these laws were created in response to some church doctrine, then point us to what this doctrine was.

Your supporting examples have been religious orders and cathedrals in Spain that had similar prohibitions. This gets the causality backwards since these are examples of certain religious organizations within the church responding to the kingdom's laws while the point you have been making is that it was the church first taught the doctrine and then it was later enforced by the state. If you are going to respond again with "well anything the state does is really just a result of church teaching" then I would point to the beginning of my post where I spoke about what have to be established in order to show that a law was a result of church doctrine.

Also a religious order or a cathedral having a rule of some sort does not mean it is a church teaching. As an example of a church teaching: No matter what monastery or cathedral you went to in Christendom there would be a prohibition on sodomy and on fornication. This is a result of these prohibitions being something taught by the church at large as a binding rule. You can point to church fathers, theologians, saints, edicts, etc. prohibiting these sort of acts. You can't find the same widespread standard within the church when it comes to the blood purity laws.

Christianity never sought to conquer or convert the whole world in the way modern dispensationalist missionary efforts might imagine. It was targeted by design to spread Christianity aimed specifically at the European tribes, those who shared the Aryan connection of a common heritage that was temporarily rooted in pagan beliefs which were seen as incorrect in the eyes of the Church. These were the tribes of the West, which is why the Gospel was not spread to Hindu, Buddhist, Zoroastrian, or other Asiatic and African peoples. There was no effort to cross those cultural and racial barriers until the last several hundred years, which have all ended in massive disaster or are ongoing in massive disaster.

This is off-topic from the subject being discussed but I had to highlight this since it flies in the face of pretty much what the faith has taught from the beginning which is to take the Gospel to all the ends of the earth. It's funny you'll talk about the Limpieza de Sangre laws while stating "Christianity never caught to conquer or convert the whole world in the way modern dispensationalist missionary efforts might imagine" since those laws came during the time and from a people that were eagerly spreading outside of Europe. You can't blame this on "modern dispensationalism" since this was centuries prior. Were these based Spaniards that had these Limpieza de Sangre laws actually cucked globalist internationalists for sending missionaries through out the world?

As for no efforts to spread to Indians, Asians, Persians etc. - what do you think is the simpler explanation for this: that the church intentionally withhold missionary efforts from these areas or was it because they were thousands of miles away and separated by treacherous terrain in an era were travel was dangerous and haphazard? You aren't even correct that the Gospel never spread to these lands.

https://aleteia.org/2018/05/18/the-...mas-the-apostle-brought-christianity-to-india

When Vasco da Gama’s fleet reached India in 1498, the Portuguese were surprised to find Christian communities thriving in the south of the Subcontinent. They were even more surprised by the locals’ certainty that their church had been established by St. Thomas. They shouldn’t have been, as countless travellers, including Marco Polo, had claimed that the saint’s grave was there. St. Thomas had preached to the Hindus and the Jews of southern India and had won thousands of converts. For the St. Thomas Christians, there is still no doubt that theirs is an unbroken tradition going back to their patron’s arrival in 52.

Also how do you explain the existence of the church in Ethiopia from the very beginning of Christendom?

First your underlying confusion is rooted in the false equivalence between ethnic identity and religion. I never suggested that any pagan Goth could marry a Christian woman just because he was Aryan by blood. The issue at hand is not that ethnic purity supersedes faith or that bloodline can be separated from faith. Rather it’s that the early Church in its foundational wisdom understood faith as the key unifier of the tribal bloodlines of Europe. This is where you fail to see the theological integrity of the Church’s laws and the spiritual necessity of those laws in preserving the European heritage.

You seem to misunderstand that the Church did not view faith and bloodline as separate. They were intertwined. The early Church wasn’t about making just any pagan a Christian it was about converting those who had the potential to accept the faith. Those were the European peoples. The Goths, Franks, Vikings, and so on were tribal Europeans, and thus, when they converted to Christianity, they did so with the recognition that their ethnic identity was not to be discarded but rather elevated through the shared faith in Christ. The Church wasn’t just preaching to a soul it was preaching to an ethnic group, a tribe whose cultural and bloodline integrity was paramount.

Faith and ethnic heritage are deeply interconnected, not as competing forces but as complementary parts of a single identity. Once the ethnic tribes of Europe embraced the Christian faith they did so knowing they were not only embracing spiritual truth but also affirming their own racial and cultural destiny. The early Church’s laws on marriage and conversion reflect this holistic view of faith as an integral part of maintaining the purity of both the soul and the bloodline, or one's generations.

All I see here is you give your own personal layman opinion on why faith and ethnic heritage are combined. I noticed within all of this writing you aren't given any actual examples of church teaching or law or commentary on your claims that the church was concerned in it's missionary efforts with bloodline. You have quoted the laws against inter-faith marriage and since you can't find any similar laws against inter-ethnic marriages, you have to claim that the laws against interfaith marriages were really meant to be against inter-ethnic marriages.

Your counter to this was saying that religion and ethnicity were the same in the middle ages but then when I pointed out this wasn't the case in the 300s (which you said is when the church started establishing laws against mixing bloodlines) you tried to handwave it away by saying "There's no need for specific laws against ethnic groups intermarrying because people already did that on their own" even though it undercuts your own argument that it was the church that was teaching the importance of racial purity. It seems you've finally recognized this contradiction and instead have shifted to the claim that the church merely just maintained the instinct:

You claim a contradiction between two points that don’t conflict in the least. First you misunderstand the role of the Church in preserving the purity of European bloodlines. Yes you're right to acknowledge that cultural norms themselves strongly discouraged intermarriage, but why? Because the tribes of Europe at their core recognized the sanctity of their bloodline and their identity. The Church did not introduce this instinct, but it affirmed it and protected it through doctrine and law. The Church didn’t create a racial instinct, it codified and enshrined it within the framework of divine law ensuring that it would remain untainted by outside forces.
Once again, please quote these divine laws. If you are going to use those laws from Roman Empire days that prohibited inter-faith marriage and say it's really about prohibiting inter-ethnic marriage since those two things couldn't separated in the middle ages, I'll repeat once again that this wasn't the case in the era that those prohibitions on inter-marriage were from (the 300s to 500s) and therefore, we cannot assume that a ban on inter-faith marriage was really a ban on inter-ethnic marriage.

You say “If people already had such a strong instinct not to intermarry, why was the Church needed?” This is where your philosophy betrays you. You seem to assume that the Church’s role was merely redundant, that the people’s natural instincts could keep them pure without any external enforcement. But you fail to recognize the reality of human history, the purity of the bloodline, the very foundation of Europe’s civilization, is constantly under threat from foreign invasion, migration, and cultural and racial dissolution. It wasn't a bunch of Lotus Eaters and Tree Worshipers who fended off the Moors, the Saracens, the Mongols, and the Ottomans.
I was merely pointing out that your own arguments were making the church's role redundant. In your previous post you wrote "Do you think Roman fathers, Greek fathers, or even Germanic fathers let their daughters walk around like open invitations for foreign men? You are applying modern assumptions to a society with strict traditions, honor codes, and ethnic boundaries." Under your own argument there was already traditions and codes that existed and the church came later and created laws against inter-faith marriages that under your mistaken interpretation was really against inter-faith marriages. Again, this was not an age when ethnicity and religion were the same so you can't make the assumption that a ban against inter-faith marriage is against inter-ethnic marriage.

I'll bring up what I said before asking why there wasn't bans against 'Germanic-Syrian marriages' or 'Berber-Ethiop unions'. You keep avoiding this because it would fatally wound your argument. In order to avoid confronting this issue, you had to undermine your own argument by saying "these laws didn't exist because there was already non-church codes and traditions that would have dissuaded people from perusing these unions".

If your argument is that the church was merely just upholding these sort of prohibitions rather than being the source of them then I would like to ask for examples of the sort of edicts it passed and teachings it was dispensing among it's flock to uphold these prohibitions. You wrote that it' a mistake to think "that the people’s natural instincts could keep them pure without any external enforcement". Where are the external enforcements in the same fashion as the edicts that prohibited marriages with Jews and heathens? If you are going to answer like you did previously about how "The Church didn’t need to constantly create new prohibitions when cultural norms already ensured that ethnic groups married among their own" then you are arguing against yourself.

Do the people need or don't need church reinforcement to stop them from ethnically mixing? If no, then that contradicts your argument that it was church teaching that prevented intermingling. If yes, then produce the examples of reinforcements. Previously when I had asked for examples you said there wasn't a need for specific laws banning these marriages but then you said they weren't needed because people would have done it on their own. That then brings us back to you answering 'no' to the question of if the people need church reinforcement to stop them from ethnically mixing.

You fail to distinguish between natural instinct and the need for institutional protection. Yes people naturally tend to marry within their own ethnic group but history shows that instincts alone are never enough to preserve racial purity because external forces like invasions, forced migrations, and ethnic or racial dilution constantly threatened these. This is precisely why the Church codified racial purity into law as was the case for the centuries of Limpieza de Sangre. It wasn't just about preserving what was "natural" it was about ensuring the survival of European identity in a world that was constantly pushing against it.
I ask again, please quote the laws that the church had codified regarding racial purity. The argument: "well it wasn't the church that did it explicitly but because state is aligned with church then any law from the state is really the same as the church making that law" won't fly for the reasons I pointed out earlier.

Albanians and Roma are European peoples, historically and racially. Your claim that they were mixed and thus not Aryan is anachronistic and ignorant of the fact that these groups are Indo-European. The Albanians, in particular, are an ancient European people with roots going back to the Illyrians, a proto-European group predating even the Roman Empire. Their ethnic lineage is undisturbed European. Likewise the Roma are a people with European origins even though their history involves movement across Europe from the Indian subcontinent over 1,000 years ago (so genetically, since they are not Dravidian aborigines, they are Aryan in origin). The idea of their being somehow “not Aryan” is a modern fallacy based on contemporary racial ideas, not the historical reality of ethnic Europe.
I didn't make any statement about these people being mixed. I was bringing them up instead because I was surprised that you would have no issue with gypsies being included among the Aryan grouping given your past statements about Hitler and also because I can't imagine a European nationalist would want to be grouped with a gypsy.

Your comparison to the 'don't know what it like to be black' argument is completely misplaced and reveals your failure to comprehend the gravity of the struggle we (meaning myself and every other European) face. It's not about emotional discomfort or a feeling of exclusion, it’s about a very real, omnipresent, existential threat. When you equate our perspective to the typical grievance discourse of those with no skin in the game you’re ignoring the facts that European racial, cultural, and theological heritage is under active and systematic attack by forces that want to erase it completely. The blacks have zero claim to that. You don't understand this because you have the luxury of not having to live under constant siege.
It seems like to me that your concern on such an important issue to you (which by the way I don't think is invalid) is clouding your perception on what church doctrine is regarding race. By saying that you aren't merely just feeling "emotional discomfort" but are instead feeling an existential threat" you are giving more support to my statement that your rational faculties are being overridden by strong passions.

Notice that none of my arguments are based about whether it is okay to be white or accusing you of racism or such. Those are completely separate issues. Rather it's been all about whether church teaching has a racial nature to it. I have never once spoken against someone advocating for the white race or against multi-culturalism or pointing out that whites are unfairly treated in the modern liberal discourse. My concern is instead is when people take Christianity and press it into the service of something that is not essential to it's core - even if it's for a cause I have sympathy with. I would do the same for people who attempt to use it to support their progressive causes like you see with many mainline Protestant churches today. You don't see my argue against these sort of people simply because none of them would ever be on a forum like this.

The origin of the "jews fear the Samurai" is not from the chans. The Meiji Japanese have always held their blood purity above their mingled Asian neighbors for centuries. The discernment for Asians vs Asians is not my realm, but I know when it comes to genetic and racial matters they have their own distinctions between themselves that my ontology could not experience first-hand.

If the Japanese believe they are more racially pure than the Chinese, then what of it? That's something to settle between Chow Mein and Sashimi.
The chan image you posted I was referring to wasn't the Jews Fear the Samurai was but the green text giving an overview of Chinese history. Green text outlines of a subject are a big feature of those boards.

You're conflating Christian Identitarianism with the zionist "British Israelite" project. The two are not only separate but fundamentally different. Christian Identitarianism is deeply rooted in the faith and bloodline of Christendom, tracing its origins back to the early Church, the Old Testament Kingdom period and beyond, which understood the importance of maintaining a pure bloodline for both spiritual and societal health. It's not a "theological novelty" or some fringe movement born out of 19th-century speculation. The Scots' Declaration of Arbroath in 1320 demonstrates an ancient understanding of the connection between the chosen people and Europe, declaring their descent from the Holy Land long before such ideas became fashionable in Protestant circles.

These perspectives are gaining traction now but it's not because they're novel or zionist. They are rediscovering the ancient, forgotten truths that were once self-evident within Christendom. This isn't some modern ideological shift but a return to original thought that ties the Church's teachings on all forms of purity to its mission of preserving the European peoples.
If you look at the thread I had posted regarding this it was another poster who is Orthodox that posted up the PDF file from a British Methodist minister regarding the issue of how Europeans are the true Jews. I find it telling that even an Orthodox has to rely on Protestant sources for this sort of theory because of the lack of support of this theory from the historical churches. These supposed truths are so forgotten that even the saints and fathers of the ancient church don't seen to remember them and instead we have to rely on non-Catholic and non-Orthodox laymen to to dig up these truths and educate their clerics on it.

By that logic, no historian, scholar, or anthropologist could possibly have an accurate understanding of any people or culture they study unless they themselves belong to it. I’m sure you’re aware that such an idea is absurd. My deep understanding of jewish psychology and nature is derived from historical study, observation, and critical analysis. True scholarship does not require one to be of a particular ethnic or religious background to understand its intricacies with the glaring exception of the present dilemma.
Yes I agree the idea is absurd and that's why it was a mistake for you to assert: "To understand the perspective of historical European Christendom is impossible for an outsider." To drive home the point I said that if we were following your logic that it is impossible for an outsider of a group to understand that group then it must mean that someone who understands the perspectives of historical Jewry (such as you) must be a Jew himself. My point wasn't to accuse you of being as Jew it is to show how your statement leads to an absurdity and therefore is not valid.
 
Christ's forum isn't a place where people can spread ridiculous heresy about the Church. Saying the Church had race purity laws or blood purity laws is complete fabrication, and this is both pre or post-schism.

Music if you, or anyone else, continue to push these lies there will be bans and other consequences. It's fine to have opinions about race, which involve our individual consciences (and these can still be wrong), but, the Church is dogma and not up for debate. Spreading heresy about the Church is also a form of blasphemy (evil speaking of God), which is against the forum rules.

The Church has never had any cannons or rules against race-mixing, only religion-mixing. The Byzantine Empire, a Christian Orthodox Theocracy, for example, was majority White Greek but still had plenty of different races, including mixed race individuals and perhaps an Emperor or two. There were definitely different races among Bishops of that time as well.

For example, St. Augustine was half-African, his father a Pagan, which was typical of many marriages throughout Christian history. The Church heavily discouraged mixed-religion marriages but could still approve of them especially if children were involved. Encouraging the pagan spouse to convert was usually part of the process. St. Vladimir, another great example, had 6 (maybe 7) wives, and the first 5 were all Pagan before he converted with his 6th wife, a princess of Constantinople, who helped build the Church of Kiev.

Music your arguments are particularly specious and pathetic, completely ignorant of thousands of years of Church history, with one or two cherry picked examples that do not even prove what you believe they prove. So, stop wasting your time and other people's time, this isn't the forum for blasphemous heresy.
 
awkward bart simpson GIF
 
I also want to point out this forum name is Christ Is King not Christ AND Race is King. Go through MusicForThePianos posts in this back and forth and see that his arguments are basically saying the forum name really should be Christ And Race Is King. He doesn't go as far as some people have done and said race should be ahead of Christ but he has been saying race is of equal importance - therefore setting it up as a god along side with Christ.

It's also very telling that one of the people who has been consistently liking all his posts on this thread is It_Is_My_Time - someone that has actually stated in the past that the church won't save you. Despite him littering his posts with references to God and Christianity he has never shown any interest in actually discussing topics related to God or faith. His output on this forum has been solely about racial and political issues. He doesn't have anything to say about doctrine or theology or Christian living since those topics are of no interest to him but he has plenty to say about topics that are discussed in the secular HBD sphere like r/k selection, evolution and IQ.
 
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It´s jews who mix race purity with religion. Not catholics.

Catholic church never prohibited. And will never prohibit marriage between different ethnicities. As long as they are Catholics. Cause for the catholic church. Christianity is universal. And everybody can and should become christian.
In colonies there were probably thousands of interacial christian marriages celebrated by the church. To which the church accepted. And we are are going back hundreds of years. It was different than now. Cause it feels we are being invaded. When in the past it was the opposite.

Don´t know much about hinduism. Only that India is a gigantic savage shithole. And therefore anything coming from India must be converted to european standards. They like shit a lot.

She shouldve converted. She is in a majority christian country. It´s bad for him. But the dating market is so shit in US the guy not only marries an indian but she wont even convert to the man religion???. How weak is this shit? This ship is going down. Even Obama was formally christian. Dude was an Ivy League student. And the best he could get was an hindu. She was richer than him. But he is european and christian. So she must bow. Bow to christ hindu savage.

If one day Vance becomes president. Hinduism will be celebrated in the white house. An hindu first lady is a shame. Which is pretty fucked up. At least she is not jew.


spreading christianity through colonialism and intermarrying the local populations is different than being replaced in your homelands which will eventually lead to the extinction of christianity. Without whites there is no christianity. Which is exactly why whites are targeted for destruction above all other races, end whites end christianity. There is room for intermarrying and when you are doing well as a population and stable or growing there is more room for intermariage. But when you are on the decline and facing severe risks there is less room to do so.
 
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Ok here's my take (whatever that's worth me not being American).

I seem to like the guy and I'd like to read his book, it seems interesting. It's good to see someone of my generation finally getting somewhere in a powerful position, this is great for everyone in the USA and the rest of the world.

His kids look Indian no matter what anyone says. He loves his wife and they go to church which is great but his wife is Hindi and doesn't want to convert.

I believe he means what he says but there's no way he's not being influenced by his Punjabi wife.

The USA visa structure is becoming more and more pro India. One plus one are just my two cents.

Look around you, they've done this before in other Anglo countries.
 
Even deranged liberal harpies who hate men with every fiber of their feebly propagandized minds see this as strange. Broken clocks are still correct twice a day.


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This wording suggests a division in the household, his wife’s Hinduism is still central in their children's upbringing. If they were truly being raised as Christians, why would he phrase it that way? In traditional Christianity the father is the spiritual head of the household. If the mother remains in a different religion, who is raising the children in faith? This proves that Hinduism is not a relic of the past in the Vance household since it's presence is still actively shaping the family.

You simply cannot defend this marriage as Christian and valid, neither theologically nor historically.


Will she be divorcing him, what are the odds versus a white chick. If he never married and died childless, she would have full blooded Indian kids, US citizens. A man's only fear should be going to Hell, not getting divorced, you'll survive, therefore I advocate men have many kids with white women. And if she leaves you, so be it, just be there for your kids. As things now stand, I want to look at Vance from another perspective:

JD is the head of his family and goes to church in this capacity, not to a Hindu temple, his good wife follows him there, didn't she forsake her career to support him, she's not a vocal Democrat anymore. He probably attends festivals, Diwali etc., family obligations. The other side of the coin is that his wife has a much better shot at accepting Jesus Christ with him as the husband, the Good News is accessible to the rest of her family like never before. Are her kids baptized? They wouldn't be if her husband was Indian. Her offspring is doing very well as far as God is concerned.

I listen to protestant radio in the car sometimes, more Christian music and talk than on the local Catholic station, which plays new and old artists who aggressively attacked Trump's proposed SCOTUS nominees for their opposition to abortion, like Carole King (Konig). Last week people gave testimonies- how somebody's brother accepted Jesus mere months before dying of old age, some parent a few years before expiring, etc. after 50 years of prayer sometimes. One Harvard educated lawyer, a made in college atheist, and a successful patent attorney in LA, dying of cancer came to Jesus on his deathbed, his born again Christian brother spent more than 10 years praying.

How many members will accomplish similar victories. The chances of me converting somebody before I leave are slim. I may have some success in bringing back a few cultural Christians.

That said, America no doubt should have remained a country for Europeans, especially those like the Englishmen who established, named, and built her. Letting in only high IQ, accomplished immigrants who appreciate the American way of life. If not for the colonists blacks wouldn't even know they live in Africa, yet it's only right the colonists must be kicked out, and take all kinds of human trash into their homelands without resistance.
 
Will she be divorcing him, what are the odds versus a white chick. If he never married and died childless, she would have full blooded Indian kids, US citizens. A man's only fear should be going to Hell, not getting divorced, you'll survive, therefore I advocate men have many kids with white women. And if she leaves you, so be it, just be there for your kids. As things now stand, I want to look at Vance from another perspective:

JD is the head of his family and goes to church in this capacity, not to a Hindu temple, his good wife follows him there, didn't she forsake her career to support him, she's not a vocal Democrat anymore. He probably attends festivals, Diwali etc., family obligations. The other side of the coin is that his wife has a much better shot at accepting Jesus Christ with him as the husband, the Good News is accessible to the rest of her family like never before. Are her kids baptized? They wouldn't be if her husband was Indian. Her offspring is doing very well as far as God is concerned.

I listen to protestant radio in the car sometimes, more Christian music and talk than on the local Catholic station, which plays new and old artists who aggressively attacked Trump's proposed SCOTUS nominees for their opposition to abortion, like Carole King (Konig). Last week people gave testimonies- how somebody's brother accepted Jesus mere months before dying of old age, some parent a few years before expiring, etc. after 50 years of prayer sometimes. One Harvard educated lawyer, a made in college atheist, and a successful patent attorney in LA, dying of cancer came to Jesus on his deathbed, his born again Christian brother spent more than 10 years praying.

How many members will accomplish similar victories. The chances of me converting somebody before I leave are slim. I may have some success in bringing back a few cultural Christians.

That said, America no doubt should have remained a country for Europeans, especially those like the Englishmen who established, named, and built her. Letting in only high IQ, accomplished immigrants who appreciate the American way of life. If not for the colonists blacks wouldn't even know they live in Africa, yet it's only right the colonists must be kicked out, and take all kinds of human trash into their homelands without resistance.

JDjeet.webp

Yeah, she's just dying to get baptized isn't she? He certainly is the one "leading her to Church". Give me a break. This is NPC level hopium. This mean leads nothing. He's a homo and she's a beard for all we know, others certainly see this. Roosh saw it instantly with some singer and a curry actress.

JDnancydance.jpg

Who a man marries is a very large perception of how the world views him, which in this instance of politics, is necessary for survival in that arena. Most White men will never respect him, and most non-White men who desire to Whiten their own genes will look down on him as weak. This man may be selected in 2028 just like Trump was selected in 2024, but it's a movie, and the people who claim to know better are lapping it up like thirsty dogs and responding to critiques of this weak man just as Pavlovian canines do. As the race situation deteriorates in America, egged on by jews as always, this man will forever be in the ;lost crowd; because of his choices. This hinjew alliance to put their servile brownies in charge of every emerging sector in America will create far more violence than Whites in charge of their own nation ever would.
 
Christ's forum isn't a place where people can spread ridiculous heresy about the Church. Saying the Church had race purity laws or blood purity laws is complete fabrication, and this is both pre or post-schism.

Music if you, or anyone else, continue to push these lies there will be bans and other consequences. It's fine to have opinions about race, which involve our individual consciences (and these can still be wrong), but, the Church is dogma and not up for debate. Spreading heresy about the Church is also a form of blasphemy (evil speaking of God), which is against the forum rules.

The Church has never had any cannons or rules against race-mixing, only religion-mixing. The Byzantine Empire, a Christian Orthodox Theocracy, for example, was majority White Greek but still had plenty of different races, including mixed race individuals and perhaps an Emperor or two. There were definitely different races among Bishops of that time as well.

For example, St. Augustine was half-African, his father a Pagan, which was typical of many marriages throughout Christian history. The Church heavily discouraged mixed-religion marriages but could still approve of them especially if children were involved. Encouraging the pagan spouse to convert was usually part of the process. St. Vladimir, another great example, had 6 (maybe 7) wives, and the first 5 were all Pagan before he converted with his 6th wife, a princess of Constantinople, who helped build the Church of Kiev.

Music your arguments are particularly specious and pathetic, completely ignorant of thousands of years of Church history, with one or two cherry picked examples that do not even prove what you believe they prove. So, stop wasting your time and other people's time, this isn't the forum for blasphemous heresy.

You claim that the Church never enforced racial purity laws yet you completely ignore the Church’s institutional role in upholding Limpieza de Sangre for centuries.

This was not a civil statute it was explicitly enforced by the Spanish Inquisition, a Catholic institution operating with ecclesiastical authority. Would you deny that?

How do civil authorities, who have no control over Monastic Orders, Cathedrals, Inquisitional offices, and Seminaries, somehow be the enforcers of who gains entry into those institutions when the only people who control initiation to those and the clergy are Church authorities?

The very concept of Limpieza de Sangre originated from religious concerns about the ‘purity’ of Christian bloodlines where it initially targetted conversos of jewish descent and Moriscos of Moorish descent. Church authorities, bishops, and inquisitors upheld these statutes, denying ecclesiastical positions and university access to those deemed impure. The Inquisition conducted investigations and trials based on blood purity requirements. This is well-documented. It was an ecclesiastically enforced racial policy, regardless of whether it was codified in the Canons or not.

Your use of Augustine as an example is anachronistic and an attempt at deflection. You’re implying that because he was 'African,' he represents an example of racial mixing in Christendom. But Augustine was a Latin-speaking Romanized Berber from a region that had been integrated into the Greco-Roman world for centuries. He was not a Moor, a Nubian, a Meccan, or a Sub-Saharan. His ancestry was indistinguishable from that of an Iberian, Roman, Greek, or Gaul of his time. To equate his "African" identity with modern racial categories is pure historical ignorance.

Therefore my arguments are not ignorant of Church history. Instead of addressing these facts, you’ve chosen to threaten bans, misrepresent arguments, and use weak counterexamples. The Byzantine Empire being a multi-ethnic state is irrelevant to Limpieza de Sangre in Western Europe. St. Augustine’s ancestry likewise has no bearing on whether the Catholic Church enforced blood purity statutes a thousand years later.

No one here is a heretic. Neither you nor I have the authority to declare someone as such. You have overstepped your bounds as a moderator one too many times, and your anger is clouding your judgment. A collected and rational approach is the best way to handle controversial topics, not threats of censorship. Banning people does not make historical facts disappear it only reveals your inability to refute them.

You accuse me of heresy, yet you hold no Church office, have received no clerical rites, and wield no theological authority. What would your priest think of you masquerading as a doctrinal enforcer on an anonymous forum? You have mistaken your moderator privileges for ecclesiastical authority, and in doing so, you commit a far greater disservice to the Church than I ever could by discussing its historical policies.

If you truly believe my position is heretical, then provide evidence. Cite any historical document where the Church explicitly condemned Limpieza de Sangre as immoral or anti-Christian. If you cannot, then you have no case. The fact remains that Pope Alexander IV and Pope Paul IV endorsed these policies within the first 50 years of their implementation. The Church not only permitted but actively upheld them. These are historical facts, not opinions.

We should continue this in the Christianity and Race thread, if you can keep civil and quote historical statutes, demographics, and context. The public is watching. Censorship is the refuge of those who cannot debate. If you wish to silence me in that manner, it only proves that your position is indefensible.
 
Since there is so much interest in this topic of race because of JD's wife, I think this post should remain here. It can be reposted in the Christianity and Race thread after as well.

You claim that the Church never enforced racial purity laws yet you completely ignore the Church’s institutional role in upholding Limpieza de Sangre for centuries.

A single part of the Catholic Church (Spain) does not represent the entirety of the Church. That it become in vogue after the Reconquista was understandable due to zeal, having overcome centuries of Islamic rule, however, it's application was in fact sinful and against Christian Cannon Laws and history. Holding grudges for generations is absurd and a reflection of hatred unbecoming of a Christian. Being skeptical of first generation converts is understandable, but it was completely unjustifiable past that point. Hence why there are no cannon laws in support of such things.

The Jews who converted after Christ's resurrection, for example, were not discriminated against. Neither were the gentiles who first converted either. Moreover the Bible clearly states that it does not matter when someone converts, as in the parable of the Laborers in the Vineyard (Matt 20):

Now when the first came, they thought they would receive more; but each of them also received a denarius. 11 And on receiving it they grumbled at the householder, 12 saying, ‘These last worked only one hour, and you have made them equal to us who have borne the burden of the day and the scorching heat.’ 13 But he replied to one of them, ‘Friend, I am doing you no wrong; did you not agree with me for a denarius? 14 Take what belongs to you, and go; I choose to give to this last as I give to you. 15 Am I not allowed to do what I choose with what belongs to me? Or do you begrudge my generosity?’ 16 So the last will be first, and the first last.”

God offers salvation to all regardless of when they convert, there is always time to convert, and all are to be regarded as Neighbors independently of their past.

That said, there will always be higher degrees of trust with those known for longer periods of time, family, and other friends, but in no way does this justify a systematic legal or ecclesiastical discrimination against groups of people.


This was not a civil statute it was explicitly enforced by the Spanish Inquisition, a Catholic institution operating with ecclesiastical authority. Would you deny that?

Not denying it, looks like they sinned.

How do civil authorities, who have no control over Monastic Orders, Cathedrals, Inquisitional offices, and Seminaries, somehow be the enforcers of who gains entry into those institutions when the only people who control initiation to those and the clergy are Church authorities?

States can pass whatever laws they want, doesn't mean it's supported by the Church.

The very concept of Limpieza de Sangre originated from religious concerns about the ‘purity’ of Christian bloodlines where it initially targetted conversos of jewish descent and Moriscos of Moorish descent. Church authorities, bishops, and inquisitors upheld these statutes, denying ecclesiastical positions and university access to those deemed impure. The Inquisition conducted investigations and trials based on blood purity requirements. This is well-documented. It was an ecclesiastically enforced racial policy, regardless of whether it was codified in the Canons or not.

So? They sinned and erred by disobeying Cannon laws and Scripture. Not the first time Catholics have done that. Some Popes were good and condemned the Limpieza de Sangre laws and other Popes just went along with what was popular.

Your use of Augustine as an example is anachronistic and an attempt at deflection. You’re implying that because he was 'African,' he represents an example of racial mixing in Christendom. But Augustine was a Latin-speaking Romanized Berber from a region that had been integrated into the Greco-Roman world for centuries. He was not a Moor, a Nubian, a Meccan, or a Sub-Saharan. His ancestry was indistinguishable from that of an Iberian, Roman, Greek, or Gaul of his time. To equate his "African" identity with modern racial categories is pure historical ignorance.

Berbers were native to Africa and quite dark skinned. Augustine got White washed in the middle ages but he was always understood as an mixed Bishop in ancient times.

ST0


A more recent painter did him justice with this portrayal of St. Augustine and his mother. Ary Scheffer (1846).

Therefore my arguments are not ignorant of Church history. Instead of addressing these facts, you’ve chosen to threaten bans, misrepresent arguments, and use weak counterexamples. The Byzantine Empire being a multi-ethnic state is irrelevant to Limpieza de Sangre in Western Europe. St. Augustine’s ancestry likewise has no bearing on whether the Catholic Church enforced blood purity statutes a thousand years later.

They are all relevant, as the weight of the Church being agnostic along racial lines is well documented. Christ said to go forth and baptize all nations, this necessarily means that excluding people based on race or ethnicity is a sin.

No one here is a heretic. Neither you nor I have the authority to declare someone as such. You have overstepped your bounds as a moderator one too many times, and your anger is clouding your judgment. A collected and rational approach is the best way to handle controversial topics, not threats of censorship. Banning people does not make historical facts disappear it only reveals your inability to refute them.

Nonsense, Church dogma is well known and is obvious to anyone who studies it. While it is true some people are overzealous and find heresy in everything, these people also cannot find any good scripture or cannon laws to back their positions. Old Calenderists come to mind.

Conversely, stuff like race, which is well documented across thousands of years of non-discrimination, both in marriage or conversion, and supported by scripture, is easily identified as dogmatic. Cannon laws state that once someone is baptized and recognized by the Church they are a full member to be treated as such. Denying these cannons IS heresy, and to state that the Church is an enforcer of racial discrimination is a form of disrespect meant to impugn, making it blasphemy.

You accuse me of heresy, yet you hold no Church office, have received no clerical rites, and wield no theological authority. What would your priest think of you masquerading as a doctrinal enforcer on an anonymous forum? You have mistaken your moderator privileges for ecclesiastical authority, and in doing so, you commit a far greater disservice to the Church than I ever could by discussing its historical policies.

Neither do you, so the point is moot. But it wouldn't matter who holds a titles of office if they are still pushing heresy. Heresy is heresy. A lie is a lie, and there is no sugar coating it. Both my Priest and Bishop would say you're speaking heresy. And my Priest is a former Catholic Cannon lawyer turned into Orthodox Priest.

If you truly believe my position is heretical, then provide evidence. Cite any historical document where the Church explicitly condemned Limpieza de Sangre as immoral or anti-Christian. If you cannot, then you have no case. The fact remains that Pope Alexander IV and Pope Paul IV endorsed these policies within the first 50 years of their implementation. The Church not only permitted but actively upheld them. These are historical facts, not opinions.

I could care less about finding the documents, but the Wiki page lists several Popes who condemned the laws back in the day:

Many religious leaders condemned the laws, such as Pope Nicholas V in 1451, the Bishop of Cuenca after the initial laws in 1449, Archbishop Carrillo of Toledo, Pope Paul IV of Rome, and many others. However, there were just as many voices who supported the statutes.

There was no uniform agreement for such laws otherwise they would have been canonized.

We should continue this in the Christianity and Race thread, if you can keep civil and quote historical statutes, demographics, and context. The public is watching. Censorship is the refuge of those who cannot debate. If you wish to silence me in that manner, it only proves that your position is indefensible.

One's man censorship is another man's cleaning up the trash. No one wants to read lies 24/7. This isn't a free speech forum and the rules clearly state that repeated denials of reality are bannable offenses (which is why flat earth is banned).

Making up lies on the Church with regards to race is low-quality posting and immensely disrespectful to the institution.

This is a fine topic to ask questions about, but to assert it as true is trolling.
 
Will she be divorcing him, what are the odds versus a white chick. If he never married and died childless, she would have full blooded Indian kids, US citizens. A man's only fear should be going to Hell, not getting divorced, you'll survive, therefore I advocate men have many kids with white women. And if she leaves you, so be it, just be there for your kids.
You're basically asking men to blindly have a ton of babies and pay child support.

Firstly, you don't even know if the government will let you be there for your kids. Once that single mom starts going crazy, discovers herself and allows their son to start the gender transition therapies, while the father can just sit and watch, you honestly expect men to feel content because, well, at least they furthered the white race?

Secondly, pretty much any man who goes out regularly has that option every single week. The extremely overweight white girl or the one with severe mental issues are always available and will let you enter her with no condom on the very first night. Sorry, but it is simply not appealing to any man with standards. Those are precisely the women that have babies with refugees and the lowest tier blacks and other minorities.

No man in his right mind is going to do any of the above for the white race.

Anyway, if you talk to single, Christian men and read through forums, you'll see that they are indeed willing to sacrifice to meet the white, Christian woman that meets their standards. However, they're doing it by moving to countries where the likelihood of meeting her is significantly higher. Some of these men work hard to further their career, learn multiple foreign languages, stay physically fit (this physical health and strength seems to be mentioned a lot by younger Christian men) etc. and they will not settle for the 60-80lbs overweight girl who has slept with 25 refugees over the past year alone, just to strengthen the white race numerically. It's not going to happen.
 
Go through MusicForThePianos posts in this back and forth and see that his arguments are basically saying the forum name really should be Christ And Race Is King. He doesn't go as far as some people have done and said race should be ahead of Christ but he has been saying race is of equal importance - therefore setting it up as a god along side with Christ.
What I will say about Music: He is very knowledgeable about history. Church history or otherwise. A lot of the data he shares is good. What I am not fond of is his slippery style of argumentation. This is not limited to Music. It is a feature of Roman Catholicism as a whole. Every Catholic I've argued with has their pet doctrine, and will filter through canons, councils, dogmas, popes, secular laws, etc, to force their arguments through. This is all bluster. When you try to point out that these things don't logically cohere as consistent evidence, they will endlessly shift the goal post. I do not feel that Music's conclusion is justified by his evidence, though he does present fair amounts of data. I'm honestly surprised he remains a Trad Cat and has not gone the way of Corey Mahler ala modern Marcionism.
 
What I will say about Music: He is very knowledgeable about history. Church history or otherwise. A lot of the data he shares is good. What I am not fond of is his slippery style of argumentation. This is not limited to Music. It is a feature of Roman Catholicism as a whole. Every Catholic I've argued with has their pet doctrine, and will filter through canons, councils, dogmas, popes, secular laws, etc, to force their arguments through. This is all bluster. When you try to point out that these things don't logically cohere as consistent evidence, they will endlessly shift the goal post. I do not feel that Music's conclusion is justified by his evidence, though he does present fair amounts of data. I'm honestly surprised he remains a Trad Cat and has not gone the way of Corey Mahler ala modern Marcionism.

Please don't lump all of us in with him, thank you.
 
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