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Deacon Ananias Vs. Matt Slick: Sola Scriptura

JCSteel

Orthodox Inquirer
Heritage
This is another good debate between an Orthodox Christian and a Protestant, although it is somewhat contentious. The debate centered mostly on issues related to the Scriptures. Matt Slick wanted to debate interpretation while Deacon Ananias didn't want to cede the issue of how the Canon was formed. Jay Dyer pops in to do some serious trolling.

 
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Considering that most of the Orthodox I've met are reading a Protestant translation (NKJV) copy and pasted into the Orthodox Study Bible, I'm curious what Sorem meant when he said "we gave you the Bible."
 
I think it's more likely that Fr. Deacon Ananias uses a more traditional translation other than the contemporary Orthodox Study Bible, but that's not the point Fr. Deacon is getting at.
Not assuming that you haven't already some of this knowledge, but just to say:
According to what history and The Orthodox Church says, no such community existed around an already official formed canon of scripture, but rather The Church: Christians from the earliest times united around The Liturgy, the Lord's Supper and also daily gatherings; In the Churches which The Apostles themselves founded (sometimes the buildings of which were lent them by wealthy converts,) and heard scripture read by either an Apostle himself, or one set overseeing by them. On Saturdays before the eve of Sunday and before Christians were kicked out of the synagogues, they would gather there and hear the scripture read in the liturgical structure given by God to the Hebrews. After exile from the synagogues, they would have liturgical services of prayer where reading of The Old testament oft' took place. This included Second Temple Judaism texts such as Wisdom of Solomon and Wisdom of Sirach. There was no such thing as laity who had an official canon of scripture in their hands, The Gospels were read in the churches and the general epistles addressed to all of the churches were copied (also called Catholic epistles) and for example 1 Thessalonians 5:27 says "I charge you by the Lord, that this epistle be read to all the holy brethren." and likewise eventually all local letters St. Paul wrote were copied and read to all the holy brethren.

If it weren't for the guidance of the Holy Spirit within The Church by the overseers, the hierarchs (for example St. Timothy Bishop of Ephesus,) this process of copying and reading scripture throughout all the churches would be incredibly hard, and forgeries would try and creep their way in. Everything was hand copied. But the bishops of Apostolic times held fast to the tradition given them. This is a view thinking of how it would be then for them, not looking at manuscripts from a 21st century mind and determining what should scripture, without considering the effort The Church went through to write sacred scripture.

What Fr. Deacon would say is that after local councils of Churches have been organizing liturgical canons of Scripture to be read, the Quinisext Ecumenical Council of Trullo within the living witness of The Church, examining liturgical rubrics (contains the scriptures read in the churches the centuries past before then) and accepting easily all the Holy Epistles and Gospels as well as the Old Testament accepted by the pre-pharisaic Hebrews, what is sacred was confirmed as it was in the churches. The guidance of the Church is what also accepted The Apocalypse of Jesus Christ written by St. John for universal use, despite it having been a localized epistle in an area which later was abused by Marcionite heretics and if I recall correctly Montanism. Without the guidance of The Church, it's likely many Christians would not have it in the canon.
This is unchanging preaching of The Church, once the Church speaks on what is sacred, dispelling heresies and confirming guidance by The Holy Spirit, it remains unchanged.

You probably know this, but Martin Luther was stopped only by his followers from removing Hebrews, James, and The Apocalypse of Jesus Christ from the readable canon, his theology led him to doubt their origin (he was not an archeologist, and if he looked into Liturgical rubrics in the early Church he would find Hebrews and James being read.) But The Church had already preached that these are sacred. Most did not listen to a single man, but on the whole teaching of the ancient Church. Before secularists and German academics, the canon of scripture in the west whether Protestant or Latin was as it was because of The Church's preaching on what is sacred, not because of archeology, or what individual men say without the consent of an Ecumenical council. And archeology confirms that the dead sea scrolls have deuterocanonicals and align with the Septuagint rather than the innovative 11th century Talmudic Masoretic text.

If it weren't for monks, scribes, and bishops faithfully translating the Bible alongside other writings and the witness of The Body of Christ...
We Would Have No Trustworthy Scripture Today.

You have to trust that The Orthodox Church with the preaching and theology that we preach faithfully translated and organized a canon of scripture for you to believe in what you're reading today.

The canon of scripture exists because it has always been alongside the deep theanthropic witness of The Body of Christ. It has never existed apart from that. It originated from our deep liturgical tradition of sacred scripture and epistles, local and across the entire Church.
 
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Three questions for you: how many books are canonical, on what basis is a book deemed canonical, when were they canonized?

Before secularists and German academics, the canon of scripture in the west whether Protestant or Latin was as it was because of The Church's preaching on what is sacred, not because of archeology, or what individual men say without the consent of an Ecumenical council.
Tell that to Jerome who translated the Latin Vulgate.

And archeology confirms that the dead sea scrolls have deuterocanonicals and align with the Septuagint rather than the innovative 11th century Talmudic Masoretic text.
The Dead Sea Scrolls are the biggest vindication of the Masoretic Text. It shocked scholars around the world that the text of the Old Testament remained uncorrupted over so long. There are more than just the apocrypha contained, you wouldn't consider the Bar Kokhba Letters canonical, would you?

You have to trust that The Orthodox Church with the preaching and theology that we preach faithfully translated and organized a canon of scripture for you to believe in what you're reading today.
I trust that the Eastern Orthodox Church had nothing to do with how Protestants got their Bible.
 
Three questions for you: how many books are canonical, on what basis is a book deemed canonical, when were they canonized?


Tell that to Jerome who translated the Latin Vulgate.


The Dead Sea Scrolls are the biggest vindication of the Masoretic Text. It shocked scholars around the world that the text of the Old Testament remained uncorrupted over so long. There are more than just the apocrypha contained, you wouldn't consider the Bar Kokhba Letters canonical, would you?


I trust that the Eastern Orthodox Church had nothing to do with how Protestants got their Bible.
This is a good response from your perspective, my response would be:
1. The whole Orthodox communion accept 76 books as canonical. This doesn't mean that there aren't other writings that are sacred. But whatever has been accepted as sacred scripture is sacred scripture and will never not be sacred scripture. The basis for deeming something scripture is its origin, (the local churches attest to the origin of their local letters) its use within the liturgical life, and The Apostolic preaching, the trustworthy tradition handed down to us. That helps us determine what is forgery, and what is not. For the deuterocanonicals, these are texts which were translated by monks into languages of new Christian peoples, because they were written by Hebrew scribes or even prophets (epistle of Jeremiah,) and were accepted by the Early Christian community, because that is where Christianity originated from. The Sadducees didn't accept any canon after the books of Moses. The same question can be applied to the question of why we accept the Psalms, Prophets, Wisdom, or Chronicles sections of the Bible. We accept them, because
One: The majority faithful living community of the people of God accepted them and God worked with the prophets. & Two: The teaching and truths within these scriptures are in continuation with the exile and redemption through Moses and with his writings.
Did God reveal new things after the books of Moses? Yes. God promised He would be with his people and reveal further His plans, even if it comes from a lowly pious faithful scribe such as Ben Sirach, or through the history of martyrs and fighters like in Maccabees.

2. St. Jerome used manuscripts, but he did it within the context of The Church, and accepted manuscripts to be translated within the criteria that I mentioned in my 1st response. He was also not an archeologist, he was Orthodox and made sure that he did not write down heretical typos, and any non-heretical discrepancies can be improved upon by later scribes. The criteria for scripture is that it is sacred and teaches what Christ desires to be taught.

3. Thank you for sharing that. Genuinely, I will look more into that. I will take it with a grain of salt just like I do the books of Enoch especially 2nd and 3rd, as the dead sea scroll community were not in full unity with The Jerusalem community. But I have no doubts that the second temple Jewish people accepted in general what we call deuterocanonical. There are writings that aren't apocryphal that you accept that aren't required to be written by the highest form of prophet, David is also a prophet, but not in the same way that St. Isaiah is. There are also writings within that period that are lost, or were very much localized, that don't necessarily mean they weren't used for a sacred purpose by God for those specific readers, and writings that were used for edification but not held on the same level as liturgical scripture, such as Enoch which have objective truths within them. The pharisees accepted apocrypha as well, and it was only until after rejecting Jesus that they cut their readings. Christ mentioned the seat of Moses and gave authority to it in the same way that he says hearken to what the pharisees and priests (not the saducees or samaritans who were heretics) say, but not to what they do. The seat of Moses is not mentioned in any of the Old Testament, apocrypha included. That's because tradition that is pleasing to God is the basis for what is sacred.
I will personally ask someone more knowledgeable about the content of the Bar Kokhba Letters, first my priest and anyone else, and I recommend if you are able to contact him ask Fr. Deacon Ananias or someone who specialize in The Biblical Canon.

4. I respectfully disagree for the prior and above mentioned reasons, because The Church and Saints are why scripture has been preserved in its translated form and why I can trust that 76 books of our canon are God pleasing, sacred, and edifying to be read within the context of The Church.

As a note, holy tradition is equal to scripture, and it is why scripture exists. It has its basis in revelation and in Christ's incarnation, because The Apostles wanted write down the basis of their preaching, and the Prophets wanted to write down God's word on His present and future actions. The Gospels are written with help of eyewitness who preserved the sacred oral truth, does not contain everything that could possibly be written as the ending of John indicates, and the epistles are written to Churches that had already received baptism, laying on of hands, sacred oral teaching of The Apostles, and received communion weekly which is blessed alongside the prayers of the presbyters. They doubtless heard of Mary, and of the miracle of the virgin birth as well. They doubtless read the didache as it was sent throughout the churches. Scripture and tradition both exist within a relationship that is lived as a life. It was the same for The Hebrew people that God had called, therefore it is the as it was then and now today.
 
Similar logic with regards to saints as well. All saints that are formally glorified by The Church are believed to be in heaven, but that doesn't exclude those that aren't formally glorified from heaven. No Saint is ever uncanonized after being canonized, and they are canonized because their lives should be known universally by the people so that the saints' lives can bring edification. The difference is that saints can say wrong things, but this doesn't affect the general teaching of The Church. The early Christian community treated the epistles of St. Clement as sacred writings, because it was, it was written by a saintly man and it contained no wrong teaching (essentially scripture.) Basically the only reason it's not canonized is that it's not necessary to be canonized and that it is sufficient for The New Testament to be comprised of the epistles of The Apostles, not excluding holy tradition. I've really enjoyed this conversation, it's allowed me to think deeply about things I like thinking about. I probably could have made simple responses, but you seem to know that it is not so simple. And I could have recommended asking a priest about high minded things, but it's nice to write down what I'm thinking and have a discussion about it, thank you GodfatherPartTwo
 
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Also I thought we all would find this interesting
 
The whole Orthodox communion accept 76 books as canonical. The basis for deeming something scripture is its origin, (the local churches attest to the origin of their local letters) its use within the liturgical life, and The Apostolic preaching, the trustworthy tradition handed down to us.
You've answered the first 2 questions; how many, what basis. But I also want to know when this canon list arrived.
Your basis for accepting the canon assumes a church tradition. When do we see that tradition in church history? Are you saying that this 76 book canon has been accepted from the beginning, is it a development, or does it not appear in church history at all?

2. St. Jerome used manuscripts, but he did it within the context of The Church, and accepted manuscripts to be translated within the criteria that I mentioned in my 1st response. He was also not an archeologist, he was Orthodox and made sure that he did not write down heretical typos, and any non-heretical discrepancies can be improved upon by later scribes. The criteria for scripture is that it is sacred and teaches what Christ desires to be taught.
What do you mean by "archaeology?" Do you mean textual criticism? I did not bring him up over his translation methodology; we'll come back to him on the issue of the canon.

But I have no doubts that the second temple Jewish people accepted in general what we call deuterocanonical.
By accepted, you mean that they believed them to be Holy Books of God or that they simply possessed these books?

I recommend if you are able to contact him ask Fr. Deacon Ananias or someone who specialize in The Biblical Canon.
I've talked to him. He blocked me. I would like to suggest Michael Kruger as a resource on the Biblical Canon.

As a note, holy tradition is equal to scripture, and it is why scripture exists.
Obviously, that is the heart of our disagreement. If there is no tradition that gives a basis for the canon then the argument is moot. Especially given the fact that the Scriptures were given as the authority over the churches they were sent to.

They doubtless read the didache as it was sent throughout the churches.
You consider the Didache to be Apostolic? Why does no one consider it Canonical Scripture?

The early Christian community treated the epistles of St. Clement as sacred writings, because it was, it was written by a saintly man and it contained no wrong teaching (essentially scripture.)
Are you sure he contained no wrong teaching? Even when he says "We are not justified by works but by faith?" I love Clement of Rome and found his writings highly edifying. However, I do think treating the canonicity of his writings as optional is very problematic. Also, phoenix's don't exist.

I've really enjoyed this conversation, it's allowed me to think deeply about things I like thinking about. I probably could have made simple responses, but you seem to know that it is not so simple. And I could have recommended asking a priest about high minded things, but it's nice to write down what I'm thinking and have a discussion about it, thank you GodfatherPartTwo.
Thank you! I find this to be a lot of fun.
 
If there was no tradition, how would the gospels even exist? God doesn't beam down books from heaven. He has men write them.
The Gospels were Divinely Inspired and do not need the crutch of tradition. Even the men who wrote them did not consider them words of men, but the Word of God. The Apostles were the instrument, not the source.
 
You've answered the first 2 questions; how many, what basis. But I also want to know when this canon list arrived.
Your basis for accepting the canon assumes a church tradition. When do we see that tradition in church history? Are you saying that this 76 book canon has been accepted from the beginning, is it a development, or does it not appear in church history at all?

A few examples of the canon in Church tradition:

-> The Council of Laodicea in 363
-> St. Athanasius's Paschal Letter 367
-> Council of Carthage in 397

The canon could not be accepted from 'the beginning' as the Church was founded before the New Testament was written.

You consider the Didache to be Apostolic? Why does no one consider it Canonical Scripture?
Just because something is not 'canonical scripture' does not necessarily imply that it is fake, wrong, ungodly, or unapostolic.

I heard Fr. Stephen de Young lecture well on the actual meaning of 'canonical': https://blogs.ancientfaith.com/wholecounsel/2018/02/21/decided-books-new-testament/

He says here that a "canonical" text exerts "authority." Thus the canon is the measuring stick of the teachings of the apostles and the Church, but that doesn't mean that a priest or monk's teachings or writings, which are necessarily outside the canon, cannot contain Truth or be inspired by the Holy Spirit.
 
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Can the doctrine of Sola Scriptura be supported from the scriptures alone? I think of it this way: if you convinced an unbeliever to repent and handed them a Bible to read, would he reach the conclusion that the Bible is the sole authority? Or it this a doctrine that must be passed down from one to another? I spent most of my life in Protestant churches and what I read in the New Testament did not match my experiences on Sundays. Most had abandoned any practice (symbolic) of communion. I spent most of my time trying to decide which denomination taught sound doctrine. One concept was always on my mind. I wanted to find a traditional church.
 
A few examples of the canon in Church tradition:

-> The Council of Laodicea in 363
-> St. Athanasius's Paschal Letter 367
-> Council of Carthage in 397
None of these contain the 76 book canon. Where is that canon in church history?
Laodicea omitted Revelation, and some of the apocrypha. Carthage and the Festal Letter also omit some of the apocrypha.

The canon could not be accepted from 'the beginning' as the Church was founded before the New Testament was written.
Obviously, from the beginning would refer to the moment of inscripturation, which is when the Scriptures were canonized. If you're arguing for a developing canon then I want to see where your canon can be found in church history.

Just because something is not 'canonical scripture' does not necessarily imply that it is fake, wrong, ungodly, or unapostolic.
Never said any of those, other than it's not Apostolic. If it was, it would be canonical Scripture.

He says here that a "canonical" text exerts "authority." Thus the canon is the measuring stick of the teachings of the apostles and the Church, but that doesn't mean that a priest or monk's teachings or writings, which are necessarily outside the canon, cannot contain Truth or be inspired by the Holy Spirit.
That's a good definition. Given that definition, how could it be anything else than that the Scriptures were canonical from the moment they were inscripturated as they possess the authority of being God-Breathed, a term that the Bible and the Apostles only ever apply to the Scriptures?

Can the doctrine of Sola Scriptura be supported from the scriptures alone? I think of it this way: if you convinced an unbeliever to repent and handed them a Bible to read, would he reach the conclusion that the Bible is the sole authority? Or it this a doctrine that must be passed down from one to another? I spent most of my life in Protestant churches and what I read in the New Testament did not match my experiences on Sundays. Most had abandoned any practice (symbolic) of communion. I spent most of my time trying to decide which denomination taught sound doctrine. One concept was always on my mind. I wanted to find a traditional church.
He would recognize that the Church is built on the Prophets and Apostles, Christ Jesus being the chief cornerstone. What do we have of the Prophets and the Apostles? The Scriptures.
 
None of these contain the 76 book canon. Where is that canon in church history?
Laodicea omitted Revelation, and some of the apocrypha. Carthage and the Festal Letter also omit some of the apocrypha.
That's a good definition. Given that definition, how could it be anything else than that the Scriptures were canonical from the moment they were inscripturated as they possess the authority of being God-Breathed, a term that the Bible and the Apostles only ever apply to the Scriptures?

I'm a bit confused as to what you're driving at. What is your own argument for 'inscripturation' (not familiar with this term forgive me), when it occurred, and what is your proof/evidence of that?

I am not asserting that there was in the early Church, a kind of "once and for all this is the canon written in stone 76 books" proclamation, I'm asserting the contrary, that the official canon was formed in response to the need to clarify what teachings and documents are authoritative according to the Church & its Holy tradition & the apostolic teachings that were handed down, just as how the Ecumenical Councils came together due to the need to clarify which teachings on God were correct according to apostolic teachings & which were twisted heresies.

Re: God-Breathed I'm unfamiliar with this term in the sense that you are using it. Any word or message inspired by the Holy Spirit would be literally "God-Breathed" would it not? How can you categorize together, say, Moses or St. John's Divine vision of Creation and the Apocalypse, and Paul opining in his letters clearly that some things he says are his OWN opinion and not of the Spirit. Yet those words are in Scripture alongside direct transmissions of Divine revelation.

Furthermore I'm not sure I follow the concept that ONLY Scripture can be "God-breathed." Rather they are the only documents that are publicly & historically CONFIRMED by the Church as God-breathed. Do you believe that the Holy Spirit stopped operating through men after the New Testament was written? That no priest, man, or teacher, ever spoke or wrote in the Spirit? Canon of course is beyond reproach as, like I mentioned, a measuring-stick - if a teacher's words contradict Scripture then you can be sure they are not of God. Forgive me if I'm misinterpreting this term as it seems like you are referring to material or terminology that I'm not exposed to.
 
I am not asserting that there was in the early Church, a kind of "once and for all this is the canon written in stone 76 books" proclamation, I'm asserting the contrary, that the official canon was formed in response to the need to clarify what teachings and documents are authoritative according to the Church & its Holy tradition & the apostolic teachings that were handed down, just as how the Ecumenical Councils came together due to the need to clarify which teachings on God were correct according to apostolic teachings & which were twisted heresies.
Is this a concession that the Eastern Orthodox 76 book canon is ahistorical? You say it was never "proclaimed" and then you say it was "formed." Which is it?

Re: God-Breathed I'm unfamiliar with this term in the sense that you are using it. Any word or message inspired by the Holy Spirit would be literally "God-Breathed" would it not?
2 Timothy 3:16 All Scripture is God-Breathed and profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for training in righteousness, 17so that the man of God may be equipped, having been thoroughly equipped for every good work.
The Bible describes nothing else, tradition or otherwise, as God-Breathed. It is unique in its origin, and as the Word of God, is ultimately authoritative.

How can you categorize together, say, Moses or St. John's Divine vision of Creation and the Apocalypse, and Paul opining in his letters clearly that some things he says are his OWN opinion and not of the Spirit.
By the simple fact that they are all the writings of the Prophets and Apostles, on whom the Church is built. Are you understanding that to say the Apostle Paul's opinion which he inscripturated is not authoritative for the Church?

Furthermore I'm not sure I follow the concept that ONLY Scripture can be "God-breathed." Rather they are the only documents that are publicly & historically CONFIRMED by the Church as God-breathed.
Again, the Bible never describes anything else other than the Scriptures as God-Breathed. The Scriptures are self-attesting in their authority. They do not need to be "confirmed" by the Church at a later date. If they do, then show me when the 76 book canon was "confirmed."
Do you believe that the Holy Spirit stopped operating through men after the New Testament was written? That no priest, man, or teacher, ever spoke or wrote in the Spirit?
No but I do recognize that the canon was closed with Revelation.

I'm a bit confused as to what you're driving at. What is your own argument for 'inscripturation' (not familiar with this term forgive me), when it occurred, and what is your proof/evidence of that?
Inscripturation simply means the writing of the Bible. It occurred when God inspired the Apostles to write the Bible. The evidence of that is the fact that the Bible exists.
 
If there was no tradition, how would the gospels even exist? God doesn't beam down books from heaven. He has men write them.

It's funny how protestants ignore the elephant in the room that until the invention of the printing press nobody was walking around with a bible. Even local churches were lucky to have a copy.

Sola scriptura is just a ridiculous premise that has no basis in reality or church history in how the average believer experienced/practiced the faith. Christianity from the beginning heavily relied on oral tradition and other aids such as icons in the dissemination of the faith.
 
It's funny how protestants ignore the elephant in the room that until the invention of the printing press nobody was walking around with a bible. Even local churches were lucky to have a copy.
I don't ignore that at all. I'm proud of the fact that Protestants translated the Bible into the common tongues and used the printing press to distribute it worldwide.
 
He would recognize that the Church is built on the Prophets and Apostles, Christ Jesus being the chief cornerstone. What do we have of the Prophets and the Apostles? The Scriptures.

This seems to suggest that the authority has a complex relationship and can not be reduced to one authority. That’s the problem with the “Solas”. How can the text have greater authority than the Holy men who wrote them and the tradition that they passed down from Christ?
 
Is this a concession that the Eastern Orthodox 76 book canon is ahistorical? You say it was never "proclaimed" and then you say it was "formed." Which is it?



The Bible describes nothing else, tradition or otherwise, as God-Breathed. It is unique in its origin, and as the Word of God, is ultimately authoritative.


By the simple fact that they are all the writings of the Prophets and Apostles, on whom the Church is built. Are you understanding that to say the Apostle Paul's opinion which he inscripturated is not authoritative for the Church?


Again, the Bible never describes anything else other than the Scriptures as God-Breathed. The Scriptures are self-attesting in their authority. They do not need to be "confirmed" by the Church at a later date. If they do, then show me when the 76 book canon was "confirmed."

No but I do recognize that the canon was closed with Revelation.


Inscripturation simply means the writing of the Bible. It occurred when God inspired the Apostles to write the Bible. The evidence of that is the fact that the Bible exists.

Obviously I'm not saying that the canon is ahistorical, you asked for attestations to the canon which I gave you, then you said that doesn't count cause it's not the exact 76 book canon we have today (only the exact NT canon we have today), and I didn't have time to dig into the matter any deeper at that time. Happy to look into this further for my own education.

Where are you getting "God-Breathed" and its cited meaning & application from? Like I said I'm not familiar at all with the way you are using this term.

I'm not saying that St. Paul's opinion isn't authoritative, I'm saying that St. Paul himself distinguished that some advice and opinions he gave were not "of the Spirit". His words not mine. If you need me to cite this I can, I believe 1 Corinthians he say this with some of his advice.

Let me ask you these questions to better understand your perspective:
  • How do *you* believe the canon of the Bible was formed, and please cite and show me how it was formed, by who, and when. I don't think you believe a neatly packaged 76 book Bible dropped out of the sky, so I would like to hear your explanation, given that you find mine to be thus far unsatisfactory.
  • Do you think that God stopped speaking through and working through man with his Holy Spirit after the Apostles died out? i.e. Do you believe that the branches of Christ the true Vine were severed and that every man must independently graft themselves on through study of Scripture?
  • Do you believe that the Apostles taught nothing more than what is preserved in their writings in the NT?
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God, working through the hands of faithful men, inspired them to writes the scriptures. Further, He then acted to ensure that the early church clearly recognized these works as special and declared them as Biblical canon. Once established, this Biblical canon was set in stone and not to be changed or tampered with. It is the Word of God, a permanent, unchanging record and instruction manual for all those who believe.

There is a reason we put things in writing to begin with, and there is a reason that the Biblical texts are so miraculously well-preserved when compared to other ancient writings. It's always been part of God's plan and design. We have the Bible to keep us on track. It's inevitable that the teachings of men will drift and change with the times, especially over the centuries, but the Bible remains unchanging. If your faith stands in accord with what is taught in the Bible, then you know you're in a good place. It is the unchanging measuring stick of Christianity.

Tradition is good, tradition is helpful, but tradition cannot replace or even stand on par with the Biblical text, simply because the traditions of man can and do change over time (i.e. consider the contentious history of icons in the Church). But God is unchanging, and so is His Word.
 
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